> If the lawyer reports them to the police, but then the client challenges that on grounds of attorney-client privilege being broken, is "the LLM said it qualified" a valid reason that'll prevent the lawyer from being found at fault?

How about, the LLM flagged it, I reviewed it, and it clearly meets the standard for mandatory reporting.

If the LLM flags it (which in a sanely designed system should be a high bar with very few false positives) and they fail to review it for bad reasons, they could be liable.

I feel like neither of these scenarios are particularly hard to address.