Highly editorialized title. "Transient multidomain functional improvement in advanced Alzheimer’s disease following high-dose psilocybin-containing mushroom administration: a case report" This is exactly that. A case report. This is not a successful treatment. Far short of that.

> We report the case of an octogenarian Japanese-American woman with a 10-year history of Alzheimer’s disease, including 5 years of marked hypofunction and predominantly monosyllabic speech.

> The patient received 5 g of orally administered psilocybin-containing mushrooms

> Approximately 19 h post-administration, spontaneous autobiographical speech emerged. Over subsequent days and weeks, functional improvements included restoration of urinary continence, improved ambulation, autonomous dressing, increased emotional responsiveness, sustained social interaction, contextual memory retrieval, preserved working memory for social context, and spontaneous conversational engagement.

This is exactly that, a treatment using psilocybin that was successful. It's not claiming to have developed a treatment protocol, the title is precise.

The title is misleading. “Improvement in advanced Alzheimer’s disease following high-dose psilocybin” sounds like results from a broader study, not an anecdotal report.

There’s a reason the article includes “a case report” in the title.

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It appears that one dose of the shrooms had positive effects observable for several weeks. That is very encouraging and hints at this being a practical treatment. (The word "transient" in the original title sets us up for disappointment, conjuring up the image of an experiment in which Alzheimer's symptoms are suspended for 20 minutes).

Questions linger about the long term use; what happens to someone who has been taking this dose, say, every two weeks for a year, or five years? Does even the second dose work as well as the first?

So is this about temporarily overclocking some cells that would then return to a healthy baseline before collapsing back after the overclocking agent is gone? Why not just do 500mg B1 HCl IV then for a comparison to see if this was just a metabolic block?

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