The conversion would be more accurate if it compared wealth and capital gains taxes, no?

A defining feature of wealth taxes is that they only tax those that make most of their income through capital gains. This is why they're popular among much of the population.

Now the question is, if we lowered capgains tax rate by 20% but instituted a 1% wealth tax, would that be better or worse? My guess would be worse because wealth taxes are nearly unenforcable, but I wonder if there are good arguments for the other position.