It's clear from the way paulgraham talks about the subject that they not only don't know the answer, but don't even realize there's such a question.
You can tell from the way they talk about the subject that they don't understand what they're talking about.
The post goes out of it's way to mischaracterize the strategy (and purpose) of wealth taxes being proposed.
> Each 1% of wealth tax is equivalent to 20% of income tax.
Mathematically sound.
> Politicians understand that an additional 20% income tax would be a lot. And indeed a US state that added 20% to its top income tax rate would have extraordinarily high taxes.
That's the point.
> In the median case, US state politicians talking about adding a "mere 1%" wealth tax are talking about causing the residents of their state to have the highest taxes in the world. That's not the sort of decision you make lightly.
Not "all of the residents". Specifically the ultra wealthy that have a billion dollars. 20% at that point, is 20% of lots. You still have lots left over.
Mathematical fairness isn't the point, which is one reason there isn't a flat tax rate.
> > Each 1% of wealth tax is equivalent to 20% of income tax.
> Mathematically sound.
Don't most wealth taxes that have been proposed have a certain level of wealth that you pay no taxes on? If so, doesn't that make this at least partially incorrect?
Maybe I'm missing something, but if I have $100 and have to pay a 1% wealth tax on it then sure that's roughly 20%. If I have $100, but I only have to pay a 1% wealth tax on everything over $90 that's more like a 2% income tax.
I live in Switzerland. All residents are assessed a wealth tax. It would not be just the top x%. Wealth taxes are a bad idea tried in Europe and then later repealed.
Famously, Switzerland is a socialist failed state where no one wants to live, of course.
Please make higher quality posts -- what in specific do you think pg has missed or does not understand?
If he can phone it in why cant I? His entire framing.
Income (or revenue), what is left over freom the paycheque (profits) and net worth (market cap) - applying a simple ratio to companies of revenue to market cap doesnt work, why would applying a simple ratio of income to net worth for people who live hand to mouth and billionaires work any better.
I think you may have missed the background: US tax rhetoric -- he's doing what I think is pretty fair math with a fair take -- the math is supposed to break down what percent income tax you need to get the same dollars in tax revenue as a 1% wealth tax (on the wealthy). I think you could quibble with his risk free rate of return number, but most conservative planners would recommend a 4 - 5 % budget for risk free rate of return.
It's not about companies - it's about showing an equivalency between a Piketty-style tax of wealth setup and what we're used to thinking about in the US, an income-style tax setup on individuals.