I've read the paper and I don't find it really convincing. The reasoning works for the proto-cuneiform tablets because we have the historical context in support, but we don't have it in this case.
I've read the paper and I don't find it really convincing. The reasoning works for the proto-cuneiform tablets because we have the historical context in support, but we don't have it in this case.
What did you find not convincing in particular?
"Our results strongly contradict the hypothesis that the sign sequences of the Swabian Aurignacian constitute writing in this strict sense."
You think it does constitute writing?