The Semitic language family is not part of the proto-indo-european language family. It's from the Afroasiatic family
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Semitic_languages
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Afroasiatic_languages
Persian is PIE and had influence over semitic languages in cultural contact. The connection could be there.
Egyptian had it, and although it's Afroasiatic it's not Semitic, so it must have gone back further than that.
Persian is PIE and had influence over semitic languages in cultural contact. The connection could be there.
Egyptian had it, and although it's Afroasiatic it's not Semitic, so it must have gone back further than that.