There is considerable evidence that they aren't.

Why did Lia Thomas go from being nowhere near winning in the male division to getting fifth in the women's?

When competitive fairness is raised as an argument for segregation, it is pretextual

If sports were not sex-segregated, most events would never be won by a woman. How is that a pretext?

Fifth is still nowhere near winning. So she went from nowhere near winning to nowhere near winning.

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