> I think this was all already figured out in 1986 though
They cite that paper in the third paragraph... Naively, the n-gluon scattering amplitude involves order n! terms. Famously, for the special case of MHV (maximally helicity violating) tree amplitudes, Parke and Taylor [11] gave a simple and beautiful, closed-form, single-term expression for all n.
It also seems to be a main talking point.I think this is a prime example of where it is easy to think something is solved when looking at things from a high level but making an erroneous conclusion due to lack of domain expertise. Classic "Reviewer 2" move. Though I'm not a domain expert and so if there was no novelty over Parke and Taylor I'm pretty sure this will get thrashed in review.
You're right. Parke & Taylor showed the simplest nonzero amplitudes have two minus helicities while one-minus amplitudes vanish (generically). This paper claims that vanishing theorem has a loophole - a new hidden sector exists and one-minus amplitudes are secretly there, but distributional
> simplest nonzero amplitudes have two minus helicities while one-minus amplitudes vanish
Sorry but I just have to point out how this field of maths read like Star Trek technobabble too me.
Where do you think Star Trek got its technobabble from?
Have I got a skill for you!
trekify/SKILL.md: https://github.com/SimHacker/moollm/blob/main/skills/trekify...
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cn4fW0EInqw
So it's a garbage headline, from an AI vendor, trying to increase hype and froth around what they are selling, when in fact the "new result" has been a solved problem for almost 40 years? Am I getting that right?
Be careful, in the strength of your passions, that you don't become a stochastic word generator yourself.
No
you’re not, and you might have a slight reading comprehension problem
.
I feel for you because you kinda got baited into this by the language in the first couple comments. But whatever’s going on in your comment is so emotional that it’s hard to tell what you’re asking for that you haven’t been able to read already, tl;dr proof stuck at n=4 for years is now for arbitrary n