This guy had an order of removal, so he seems to be a valid person to detain and deport, no?

Edit: the more I read about it, the more I am convinced he is not a "literally everyone" case.

He was in the US for 20 years, and had no green card. He has work authorization, which means he probably got it as part of the i485 application to get a green card due to his marriage. Other publications report that he came to the US on a tourist waiver visa program, and overstayed. So, what was his status all these years?

No wonder the trust in media is all time low -- this article did a sloppy job to paint a specific picture, and this picture has a bunch of holes in it.