If there was an argument that proved such a thing, then it must distinguish between humans and 'artificial' intelligences. Can someone explain how they do so?
If there was an argument that proved such a thing, then it must distinguish between humans and 'artificial' intelligences. Can someone explain how they do so?
Seems like a provocative piece that stirs up some discussion, which is good. But I get what you're hinting at. Humans are GI and obviously exist. So it's trivially disproven by counter-example.